CAT Diagnostic Test

 

  DIRECTIONS for question1 to 7: Determine which of the given pairs bears the same relationship to the capitalized pair
Question 1. QUOTIDIAN     :DAILY

A. Ingénue    : apprentice   
B. Plaudit     : praise
C. Grotesque : strong
D. Surrogate : inferior
 

Question 2.  PREHENSILE:     COILED

A. Gull       : deceive
B. Moment : quickness
C. Protégé : mentor
D. Bibulous : garrulous

Question 3.

IMPRECATION   :     BENEDICTION

A. Dowager   : widower
B. Excessive  : inordinate
C. Ignorance : knowledge
D. Blether     : gossip

Question 4.

EBULLIENCE    :     EXUBERANCE

A. Grace        :    radiance
B. Antiquated :    antediluvian
C. Obsequious:    aggressive
D. Jaded        :    unsullied

Question 5.

 EDENTATE       :     TOOTHLESS 

A.  Frangible    :  resistant
B.  Parlous       : dangerous
C.  Supernal     : superlative
D.  Talion        : claw

Question 6.

DEMOTIC     :     POPULAR

A. Sexagesima    : sixth
B. Eremite          : recluse
C. Diaphanous    :  polygamous
D. Barter           :  bargain

Question 7. ANCESTRY       :     LINEAGE

A. Royalty      : bourgeoisie
B. Malediction : curse
C. Alloy         : metal
D. Candour    : simplicity

  DIRECTIONS for questions 8 to 22: Given below is a set of 4 sentences marked A,B,C,D followed by four options.  Select the options that the most logical  rearrangement of the sentences.
Question 8.

A. In which case they should not have approached the World Bank in the first place for a loan.
B.  Some circles feel that the old suspicion of the World Bank being a Trojan horse of imperialism still persists with the  Marxist veterans.
C. Others, however, are of the view that a much stronger reason for rejecting the independent financial survey is the fear that it may reveal many irregularities in the state’s finances.
D.Industry circles point out that at least the State finance minister should be aware of the fact that the World Bank-after losing billions on dud loans based on debtor’s evaluation-has now been forced to be much more careful in sanctioning future loans.

A.  BADC
B.  DBAC
C.  ABCD
D.  ADCB

Question 9.

A. Did the sub-continent’s visual arts mysteriously vanish thereafter?
B. Rarely do you see anything from later than the 18th century.
C. When major museums in Europe and America exhibit Indian art, one expects yet another display of survivors from the distant past: ancient or medieval religious sculpture, Mughal or Rajasthani miniatures or decorative arts.
D. Of course not, and this summer two complementary American exhibitions celebrate very different aspects of India’s modern Arts.

A. ADBC
B. CBAD
C. BCDA
D. CBDA

Question 10.

A. Given this perspective, it is no wonder that companies are grappling with the task of enhancing customer satisfaction.
B.  The rise of customer power  in particular, is triggered by extensive deregulation and general across-the board import duty reduction effected by various countries, leading to greater competition
C. The introduction of various customer protection laws is also making customers more powerful at the expense of suppliers.
D. Companies across the world are being forced to acknowledge two new developments across the world; the rising power of customers and, the emergence of a new generation of competitors?

A. DBCA
B. BCAD
C. BCDA
D. DCBA

Question 11.

.        A        A. Take   the instance of e-commerce which has changed the conventional system of purchasing and services in a number of counties as it has enabled bypassing the retail process in many cases.
B. Undoubtedly advances in technology will have a far-reaching impact on advertising not merely on its technical dimension, but in changing the manner in which consumers are exposed to communication, it will change consumer buying behavior.
C.   Notwithstanding present hiccups, there is nothing that can stop the present changes from happening in India too.
D. Clearly this is a fundamental change, given that advertising I essence is concerned with consumer purchasing decisions and the manner in which these are executed.

A. ABCD 
B. BDAC
C. BACD
D. CABD

Question 12.

A. While women tend to be stronger ins competencies based on empathy and social skills, with men doing better on those based on self-regulation, a study of MBA students discovered that men and women can improved to the same extent, no matter where they start out on a given competence
B. No matter how insensitive, shy, short-tempered or awkward people may be, with motivation and the right effort they can cultivate emotional competence.
C. This improvement put emotional intelligence in sharp contrast to IQ, which remains largely unchanged throughout life.
D. While purely cognitive capacities remain relatively fixed, emotional competence can be learned at any point in life.

A. BCDA
B. ABDC
C. ACDB
D. DCBA

Question 13.

A. His irrelevance in Gujarat clearly shows that his candidature is a Congress ploy to get the BJP giant L.K.Advani
B. Ater unsuccessfully knocking at almost all doors for a nomination in the Presidential election, he turned to the Shiv Sena.
C. Seshan’s desperate hankering after power only proves that the once self-proclaimed ‘Alsatian’ is now reduced to a self serving ‘billi’
D. Seshan now says that the Congress is the best platform for him to serve the country.

A. CADB
B.  CDBA
C. BCAD
D. BDAC

Question 14.

A. The ‘brother’ was at a loss for words and fled the place, but not till the ‘sister’  had extracted Rs.50 from him.
B. Suddenly one of the girls took out a rakhi from her bag and tied it on his arm.
C. He was all the more pleased when they started talking to him.
D. To his surprise they stopped, turned, and with a smile on their faces, started walking towards him

A. ADCB
B. ABCD
C. DCBA
D. DCAB

Question 15.

A. Ahmed smelt a rat in the release of the monkeys since almost all the toxicity tests had been done, and the research was nearing completion.
B. Biotechnics now has to seek permission all over again to conduct the toxicity tests.
C. It’s only source of consolation was the Andhra Pradesh High Court, which ordered the animal rights activists and the Union health ministry to stop interfering with the tests.
D. Multinationals were the only beneficiaries of the release, apart from the monkeys.

A. ABDC
B. ADBC
C. ADCB
D. DABC

Question 16.

A. The young boy’s grit and sheer brilliance carried him through, and with the help of many benefactors  and government scholarships he went on to acquire a medical degree.
B. Born to a physician in the village, times were  hard for the little boy.
C. Fighting disease and hunger at every step of the way, he struggled to get an education.
D. Three of young Bahuleyan’s siblings died in their childhood, and he was one of the two survivors among five.


A. BDCA
B. DBCA
C. BCDA
D. DBAC

Question 17.

A. That’s a sizable number.
B. The ISPAI, comprising about 20 ISPs, took up the issue with the TRAI, which subsequently directed MTNL to offer the same facility to subscribers of private ISPs.
C. Little wonder then that MTNL has started offering free telephone registration to subscribers to its Internet services.
D. But MTNL still charges Rs.1000 for phone registration to subscribers of other private ISPs.

A. BDAC
B. BACD
C. BCAD
D. ACBD

Question 18.

A. After notching up $1 million in revenue, the company decided to analyse its businesses.
B. But what is the business strategy?
C. It discovered that most clients were dot.com start-ups that have to build value in the first nine months.
D. When they began, their stated strategy was to work one e commerce projects in vertical segments in emerging technologies

A. BDAC
B. DBAC
C. DACB
D. BDCA

Question 19.

A. Between  you and me, if it wasn’t for the revenues from your department, I wonder what we would have done.
B. The rest of us have done as badly or as well last year.
C. But we have to look at the business as a whole.
D. You will understand; after all, you are the head of training.

A. DBCA
B. DABC
C. ADBC
D. ABCD

Question 20.

A. The Tetley deal could flounder on the price to be paid.
B. In theory at least, the due diligence exercise could conclude that the asking price is too high
C. Still, a possibility between  slip between the cup and the lip can’t entirely be dismissed.
D. And even if it buys the British company, the Indian company could face the danger of a flight of top talent at Tetley

A. ABDC
B. BCAD
C. DBCA
D. BCDA

Question 21.

A. Slacker is not a word in Kapil’s dictionary
B. What will he do?
C. First things first.
D. A team which resembles a battered truck that’s seen too many accidents, whose battery is on the blink, whose ego inflates often in tandem with its weight, better watch out.

A. DABC
B. BCAD  
C. DBCA
D. BCDA

Question 22.

A. Pakistan and the so-called mujahideen, many of them Afghan mercenaries, are still smarting under the humiliating retreat.
B. The revenge for the Kargil debacle is believed to be another major reason.
C. Post Kargil, the ISI has already upgraded its proxy war in J&K.
D. The militants coming in are better trained, equipped with deadlier arms and strike in much larger group than even before.

A. CADB
B. CBDA
C. BCAD
D. BACD

  DIRECTIONS for questions 23 to 27: In each of the paragraphs given below, one sentence is missing. Beneath each paragraph are given 4 sentences. Choose the sentence that fits in the best.
Question 23. We are on the threshold of the biotech century. (……………..). scientists are beginning to organize life at the genetic level. Scientists working in the new field of bio-informatics are beginning to gather a database of genetic information, of millions of years of evolution, which will be used by researchers to remake the natural world. Global agriculture will enter a new era, where instead of growing food in fields it will be grown in giant bacteria baths at a fraction of the price of growing staples on the land with the eventual elimination of the agriculture age.


A. Our way of life is likely to be more fundamentally transformed in the next several decades than in the previous one thousand years.
B. Until now public attention was focussed on the other great revolution-computers and tele-communications.
C. Animal and human cloning could become commonplace with replication replacing reproduction.
D. It is the simple down to earth individual who will benefit from the new research.

Question 24. To many of them, recovery means the phenomenal growth rates of the early 1990s. Yet such growth will be much harder to come by than it was in the past, when the region could expand easily by throwing more people, money and trees at its problems. For all their advantages-and they still have many-Asia’s economies are more developed now than they were a decade ago. They will retain the advantages of youth for many years yet. (…………….)

A. Which is why the news from Asia is so discouraging, even as its economies perk up.
B. But growth will depend less on deploying more people and capital, and more on something rather harder-raising productivity. 
C. If Asia’s governments fail to deliver on their promised reforms, they will have failed to lay the ground work for the more efficient use of capital and faster growth in productivity.
D. But it does mean that the region’s leaders should distinguish the impact of the business cycle from Asia’s imposing collection of structural challenges.

Question 25. The Swedish tax system has during the last 15 years been transformed in several important ways. Marginal tax rates reached a peak around 1980. However, since this system with very high marginal tax rates was combined with a system of fairly liberal rules for deductions of various forms, many economic agents could avoid the high marginal taxes by using the system of deductions in a clever way(……..). The series of tax reforms culminated in 1991 with a large change in marginal taxes between 1990 and 1991, several types of base broadening and the introduction of separate taxation of labour and capital income.

A. During the eighties there was a series of tax reforms, decreasing marginal tax rates and limiting the scope for various forms of deductions.
B. Several motivations have been given for implementing the tax reforms. 
C. Tax reform has been a continuous and gradual process for a long period of time.
D. Marginal tax rates reached a historical high in 1980 and a low in 1991

Question 26. The ethnic Albanians want independence and do not want to be ruled by a Serb-dominated government. They regard Kosovo as their homeland, a rugged region of rolling hills, hardscrabble farms and forests. The Serbs, on the other hand, cherish Kosovo as the cradle of their civilization. It is home to many ancient Serbian Orthodox monasteries and was the site of a battle in 1389 that Serbs hold as the defining moment of their culture-a battle that was lost by the Serbs and that opened the way for the Turkish domination of the region. (…………). Both sides, then, want to control the region.

A. Many Serbs like to see themselves as leading the fight ever since to end Turkish, and Muslim, influence.
B. Relations between Serbs and ethnic Albanians in Kosovo have been tense for decades; whichever group was in charge oppressed the other. 
C. Tensions ran high, and Albanians were frequently arrested or harassed, but a relative peace continued through most of this decade.
D. They fear, probably correctly, that if Albanians are given control of Kosovo, there will be no place for Serbs.

Question 27. Internationally Wal-Mart plans to open 90-100 units in its current markets, including new stores and clubs as well as relocation of certain units. (………). All together, the new distribution centers will add over 9 million square feet of space. Wal-Mart’s planned growth represents approximately 34 million square feet of additional retail space or an 8 per cent growth in square footage.

A. Additionally this year’s international acquisitions added 303 units and 25 million square feet of retail space.
B. The company already had 1,821 superstores, 650 super centers, and 453 Sam’s clubs in the USA and the world over. 
C. In what it termed the largest distribution centre expansion history, it plans to open four new regional general food centers, four food distribution centers and two fresh food distribution centers.
D. Wal-Mart Stores Inc, the world’s largest retailer plans to open about 40 new discount stores and 160-165 new super-centers under an aggressive growth plan for the next fiscal year.

 

DIRECTIONS for the questions28-35: Each question has two sets of statements. Each set can be rearranged in such a manner that the third statement logically follows from the first two. In the following questions, 

Mark A if only the first set of statements can be rearranged.
Mark B if only the second set of statements can be rearranged
Mark C if both the set of statements can be rearranged.
Mark D if neither set of statement can be rearranged.

Question 28.
  1. A.Veneta Cucine kitchens are the best.
    B.Veneta Cucine kitchens are modular.
    C.Only modular kitchens are the best.

  2. A.All that glitters is gold.
    B.My tooth glitters.
    C.My tooth is gold.

A.
B.
C.      
D.

Question 29. 1. A. Wooden panels bringing out the great artistic skills of the Maharajas
    B. The Maharajas exhibited their great artistic skills through their work on wooden panels
    C. Great artistic skill was aptly demonstrated through the use of wooden panels by the Maharajas
A. All suppliers are made to wait for 15 minutes, even if they’re on time.
    B.   All the suppliers visit our clients
    C. Our clients make everyone wait for 15 minutes, even if the visitors are on time.

A.
B.  
C.
D.

Question 30.

1      A. Superman and Robin Hood are still alive in Hollywood.
        B. There is evidence that Superman and Robin Hood are alive in Hollywood.
        C. Evidence that exists can point to truths.

2      A. Anna, give back your ring to me
        B. Anna, I will  set you free.
        C. Anna, if you give back your ring to me, I will set you free.

A.
B.  
C.
D.

Question 31.

  A. It’s been a long time since I rocked and rolled.
      B. A month is a long time for me, especially when it comes to rock and roll
      C. I haven’t rocked and rolled for nearly a month , maan!

2   A. Dear Prudence, You should come out to play.
     B. When the Sun is up, the sky s blue, it’s beautiful, it’s over you, it’s a grand new day.
     C. Dear Prudence, You should come out to play when it’s a grand  new day.

A.
B.  
C.
D.

Question 32.

1  A. Wide chairs are for foreigners.
    B. I have wide chairs
    C. My chairs are foreigners’

A. I once had a girl, and she was the only girl I ever had.
    B. I once had a girl, and she was the only girl I ever had.
    C. The girl  I had was named Dizzy Miss Lizzy.

A.
B.  
C.
D.

Question 33. 1  A. Saturday nights 9 o’ clock bring in pretty good crowds.
   
B. It’s a pretty good crowd for a Saturday.
    C. It’s 9 o’ clock on a Saturday

A. The Dutch exhaust all supplies.
    B. We had the Midas touch, until we met the Dutch.
    C. The Dutch exhausted our supplies.

A.
B.  
C.
D.

Question 34.

1   A. We don’t need another hero.
     B. All those who are young and are cyber junkies don’t need anything or anybody.
     C. We are young cyber junkies.

  A. If  you be my bodyguard, I can be your long lost pal.
     B. Only my long lost pals can be my body guards, and  can call me A.
     C. You can call me A

A.
B.  
C.
D.
E.

Question 35.

A. The Planner must analyse all available data to define the target from a business perspective.
    B. Only analysis of all available data can enable anyone to define the target from a business perspective.
    C. The Planner wants to define the target from a business perspective

A. Everybody once said that some body should do all the good things  that nobody could do.
    B. Somebody said that everybody spoke about doing all the good things that nobody could do , but just once.
    C. Whatever good things nobody could do, according to somebody, were the things that Everybody should do.

A.
B.  
C.
D.

  DIRECTIONS questions 36 to 43; Read the paragraph and answer the questions that follow.
 

PASSAGE-1

Depression is explained as the deepest crest of sadness. It usually occurs during drastic times of people’s lives-after a loss (death, for example), relationship problems, school, grades, stress, etc. Anything can trigger depression-big or small. It depends on the person, the situation and the events that are happening within the person’s life.

Question 36. Which of the following is the author least likely to agree with?

A. Depression is caused by events that disturb the sufferer mentally.
B. Depression can hit anyone, anytime. 
C. "Drastic time" are events that have the potential to shake you up.
D. During depression, people become sad and quiet.

 

PASSAGE-2

You didn’t see that sweet that came with every dawn. You didn’t see the bullying American kids kicking Lee’s shoes across the locker room before his Junior Wimbledon semi-final, and Lee calmly picking them up and slaughtering his opponent. You didn’t see Hesh, wondering about their early losses as a pair, but telling Lee the only thing is to practice harder. "There is no backing off", he says. You didn’t see this, but they remember everything.

Question 37. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

A. Lee is now a famous sportsperson.
B. Lee is a fiercely determined individual. 
C. Lee’s is success has come with a partner in tow
D. Lee beat his opponent at the Junior Wimbledon final.

 

PASSAGE-3

Nevertheless, the urban market is getting tired of the Maruti 800 as it is raising questions about quality, safety and comfort levels of cars. Is the air-conditioner ‘better’ than Maruti’s? Or does it have multipoint fuel injection (MPFI) instead of the carburetor? In the past, the air-conditioner was an avoidable luxury. Now, almost every new car is fitted with air-conditioners and directional fans. MPFI, which works with sensors that scan engine emission and constantly adjust the fuel to air ratio, is another key feature that buyers clamor for. Another buzzword is safety, and every new entrant is flaunting side protection bars.

Question 38. What can be inferred from the passage?

a. In the rural markets, Maruti 800 sales remain high
b. The urban market is dissatisfied with the quality, safety and comfort levels of cars.
c. Maruti 800 does not have MPFI
d. Most new cars are safer than the Maruti 800

A.b&d
B.cb,c&d
C.a,b,&d
D.None of the above

 

PASSAGE-4

The debate it, was it a fatherly kiss? Or a grandfatherly peck? Or was it a lascivious smooch? The most popular kiss; which the Sardar attempted, is the cocktail kiss, which is practiced after 7 PM in the drawing rooms of any sub-continental city. The man bends his neck like a Siberian crane over the shoulders of the woman he holds in an uneasy embrace, and pouting his lips, makes funny noises on both sides of her cheek. Hearing which, on cue, the woman giggles and makes similar noises in the air. Others have been seen to seize the lady by the shoulders in a vice like grip, usually employed by policemen, look longingly and intensely at a rouged cheek and bring their lips down on the landing pads with the attempted sensuality of a giraffe. There are those who hold their cheeks to each other, and kiss themselves, others who leave damp imprints on blushes hastily daubed at, while some barely brush at proffered cheeks and pass on to the next. Ah well, there are kisses and kisses.

Question 39. According to the passage

A. There re many kinds of kisses.
B. Women like being kissed in the "Siberian Crane" fashion 
C. Some people have made kissing an art.
D. The Sardar’s kiss falls in between a peck and a smooch.

 

PASSAGE-5

So in the fine arts, fashion design and architecture, there is a concerted effort to make works of are from waste. While Nek Chand’s famous rock garden in Chandigarh-in which everything from discarded cans to concrete blocks have been used-has been around for year, the idea of using waste on a more individual basis is still catching on.

Question 40. Can it be concluded that in fashion design and architecture, making work of art from waste is the latest trend?

A. Definitely
B. Definitely not 
C. Probably
D. Probably not

 

PASSAGE-6

In the end, it’s only one thing. You may have the charm of an oily Italian count, and the face of David. You could be the product of some genius sperm stolen from a blank and own the transparent heart of Joe Lewis. You could move with the speed of a Porsche, and possess the predatory instinct of a Jaguar. Counts for nothing, zer, zilch, nada, if you don’t win.

Question 41. According to the author, what may not be untrue?

A. An oily Italian count charms, but may not always win
B. Winning is never the main idea for most people
C. Winning is everything
D. What matters in life is more than winning

  DIRECTIONS for questions 42 to 50: Find the odd man out.
Question 42.

A. fedora
B. fez
C. bowler
D. felt

Question 43.

A. republican
B. democrat 
C. labour
D. parliament

Question 44.

A. mercury
B. silver 
C. gold
D. copper

Question 45.

A. comrade
B. companion
C. associate
D. accomplice

Question 46.

A. ice
B. stream 
C. cloud
D. dew

Question 47.

A. horse
B. fox
C. elephant
D. donkey

Question 48.

A. school
B. pack 
C. herd
D. warren

Question 49.

A. crab
B. lobster 
C. oyster
D. prawn

Question 50.

A. anna
B. kroner 
C. lira
D. shekel

 

SECTION II

  DIRECTIONS for questions 51 to 58: Choose the correct option.
Question 51. The  fifth term of an arithmetic progression is 16 and the ninth is 44.  Find its seventeenth term.

A. 86
B. 100
C. 12
D. Cannot be determined

Question 52. 2 trains moving in opposite directions find themselves on the same track.  The slower train, moving at 81 km/hr sports the faster train, moving at 99 km/hr, at 10:46 am., when they  are only 2250 mts. Apart.  The driver of the slower train comes to an immediate halt but the faster train continues moving.  At what time does the  accident take place?

A. 10:47:40
B. 40:48:10
C. 10:49:00
D. 10:50:22

Question 53. From a cube of side 9 cms, how many cubes can be formed of size 45mm?

A. 4
B.
C. 16
D. 32

Question 54. In a trapezium, the diagonals intersect at point O. The ratio of the length of one of the diagonals from on vertex of the trapezium to the point O to its entire length is 2:5.  Find the ratio of its parallel sides (smaller side:larger side).

A. 2:5
B. 2:3 
C. 2:7
D. 5:7

Question 55. The 8th digit of (303)3 is

A. 3
B. 7 
C. 9
D. 1

Question 56. If xa +yb = zc, what is z, if a=bc?

A. c(xc+y)/b
B. a(xc+y)/c2 
C. b(x+yc)/c
D. a(x+yc)c2

Question 57.

If the side of a cube is twice the radius of a sphere, which of the following is true?
I.       the cube completely fits into the sphere
II.  the sphere completely its into the cube

 

A. I only
B. II only 
C. both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

Question 58. ‘A’ takes twice as much time  as “B” does to complete a piece of work but gets paid half of what ‘B’ gets paid for the same work.  The ratio of their hourly wages is (A:B).

A. 1:1
B. 1:2
C. 1:4
D. 4:1

 

DIRECTIONS for questions 59 to 64: Refer to the following data.

In 3 comprehensive tests taken by IMS students for part B, eight good students A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H were identified and ranked .  For each of the tests, the following observations were  made

I.   no.2 students share the same rank
II.  A has a better rank compared to H
III. C is exactly one rank better than  G
IV. There is only one student ranked between B and F.  this student has a lower rank than A
V.  D and G have a better rank than  A
VI. E tops the ranking

Question 59.

Which of the following cannot have the lowest rank
A. B
B. F
C. H
D. I and II

Question 60. Who is ranked fifth?

A. G
B. D
C. A
D. Insufficient Data

Question 61. How many positions can G occupy?

A. 1
B.
C. 3
D. 4

Question 62. From the given data, how many ranks are definitely determined?

A. 3
B.
C. 5
D. 6

Question 63. If ‘H’ is ranked 7the what is D’s rank

A. 2
B.
C. 5
D. Insufficient data

Question 64. Which of the following arrangements is valid?

A. E D G C H A B F
B. E C G D A F H B
C. E D C G B A F H
D. E D B C G A F H

  DIRECTIONS for questions 65 to 70: Choose the correct option.
Question 65. A  cylinder of base radius 5 cm and height 58 cm is inclined in such  a manner that the smallest vertical distance from the ground to its top surface is 29 cms.  Find the angle of inclination

A. 15°
B. 30° 
C. 45°
D. 60°

Question 66. If ‘MARY’=’Are bright stars visible. ‘Which of the following will answer the question

A. RAMY
B. YMAR 
C. ARMY
D. Both 2 and 3

Question 67. A point on the largest side of a triangle is equidistant from the vertices of that side.  A line passing through this point, and parallel to the smallest side intersects  the longest and second longest side at a distance 17 cms apart.  Find the length of the smallest side.

A. 8.5
B. 34 
C. 51
D. Can’t be determined

Question 68. Which   is the largest 6 digit number that is a multiple of 9 but leaves  a remainder of 2 when divided by 11?

A. 999999
B. 999992 
C. 999891
D. None of these

Question 69. In how many ways can you arrange the letters of ‘APTITUDE’ so as to form words that start and end with a vowel?

A. 64
B. 128 
C. 144
D. 196

Question 70. If the speed of a boat when travelling downstream is three times its speed when travelling upstream, then the speed of the current is what % of the speed of the boat in still water

A. 50%
B. 66 2/3 % 
C. 75%
D. Can’t be determined

 

DIRECTIONS for questions 71 to 75: Refer to the following data

A,B,C,D, and E belong to multinational companies in 5 different countries.  They attend an international conference in New York, however, communication between them becomes a problem on account of the following restrictions.

I.   A speaks only German and English
II.  B speaks only Spanish, Italian and French
III. C speaks only German
IV. D speaks English and Italian
V.  E speaks French and German

Question 71. Which of the following groups can communicate with an interpreter?

A. A,D,E
B. B,D,E 
C. A,C,E
D. A,B,E

Question 72. In all how many groups of 3 is possible to form which will not require an interpreter?

A. 1
B.
C. 4
D. 6
Question 73. If B and C have to communicate, who can serve as an Interpreter?

A. A
B. D
C. E
D. No Interpreter required

Question 74. How many pairs can be formed where delegates can communicate with each other without a third person assisting them?

A. 3
B.
C. 5
D. 6

Question 75. In the  previous question, if ‘C’ were to speak one more language, which language should it be so as to increase the number of pairs by maximum possible value?

A. English
B.  French
C. Italian
D. Either A, B,or C

Question 76. If 2 is subtracted from a number, it becomes a perfect square.  Which of the following cannot be the l st digit of the original number?

A. 3
B. 6
C. 8
D. 0

Question 77. A sphere is melted and half the liquid is used to form 11 equal cubes, whereas the remaining half is used to form 7 equal smaller spheres.  The ratio of the side of the cube to the radius of the new small spheres is

A. 1:Ö3
B. 2:Ö3 
C. 2Ö3:1
D. Ö3:Ö2

Question 78. The question x 2+ yx+ 16 has only one root.  What is ‘y’?

A. -4
B.
C. 8
D. Can't be determined

Question 79. 71x 62x53x4 4equals

A. 8064000
B. 6428500 
C. 9826520
D. 1246400

Question 80. After elections to 288 assembly seats, the spokesperson of a party observed that had they obtained 16% more seats, they would then have had a simple majority.  How many seats has the party obtained

A. 110
B. 120 
C. 125
D. 160

Question 81. From a bunch of 5 keys, 3 right keys  have to be used to open a lock, such that the first opens the lock and allows the second key to be used, and the second key allows the third be used.  What are the chance of opening the lock in a random selection of 3 keys?

A. 1/30
B. 1/60
C. 1/120
D. 1/80

Question 82. If a/b> c/d then

A. log a + log c > log b-logd
B. log a+ logd> logb +logc 
C. log a+ log c = log b+ logd
D. None of these

Question 83. The difference in the circumference of 2 circles is a multiple of 6p.  Which of the following statement is/are true?
i )  If the larger circle has  a radius that is  a multiple of 3, then the smaller circle cannot have a radius that is  multiple of 3.
ii)     If the smaller circle has a radius that is a multiple of 3, then the larger circle cannot  have a radius that is a multiple of 3.
iii) The smaller circle cannot have a radius that is half the radius of the larger circle

A. i and  ii only
B. ii and iii only 
C. iii only
D. None of them is true

Question 84. When you have an amount > 100 in hand,  you deposit 20% of the amount.  When your in hand balance < 80 you withdraw 25% of in-hand balance.  What will be the amount in hand at the end of the 19th  transaction, if you had started with Rs.125 in-hand?

A. 80
B. 100 
C. 125
D. 156.25

Question 85. Three years  ago, A’s age was 4/5 times B’s age.  Six years hence, the ratio of their ages will be 7:8.  Find their present ages.

A. 12,15
B. 15,18 
C. 24,27
D. 36,48

Question 86. Three partners inverted capital in the ratio 1:3:7.  The time period for which each of them invested was in a ratio of the reciprocals of the amount invested.  Find the share of the partner who brought in the lowest capital, if profit is Rs.900.

A. 100
B. 300
C. 81
D. None of these

Question 87. A bank deposit earns Rs. 1200 interest in the 2nd year and Rs.1380  interest in the third year.  How much will it earn in the 4th year?

A. 1500
B. 1587 
C. 1460
D. 1650

Question 88. If 13 x2-15x+181 > 3x2-15x+18 then

A. -3/2<x<3/2
B.  2<x<3
C. x<2 or x>3
D. Statement is self-contradictory

  DIRECTIONS for question 89 to 92:  Refer to the following data.

x Å
y = xy/z

z = (x2-y2)/(x+y)
Question 89.

 

What is 13 x (30 Å 17) ?

A. 169
B. 510 
C. 1620
D. None of these

Question 90. If 739  Å   543  = -(x  Å  739), what is ‘x’ ?

A. 543
B.  -543
C. 196
D. -196

Question 91. If  a  Å  b     is a natural number and either ‘a’ is odd and ‘b’ even or vice-versa, which of the following is true?

A. a  Å   b   is always even
B. a  Å   b   is always odd
C. a  Å   b  could be either even or odd
D. a  Å   b is odd if a>b

Question 92. If ‘a’ and ‘b’ are both even, then a Å b  will  always be

A. always even
B. either even or odd
C. always odd
D. none of these

  DIRECTIONS for questions 93 to 95:  Choose the correct option
Question 93. A  train 170 m long is moving at 72km/hr.  If it does not halt at Chinchpokli station whose platform is 150 m long, how long will it take to cross the platform?

A. 10 sec
B. 18 sec
C. 16 sec
D. 24 sec

Question 94. In an election between 2 candidates, 80% of the population cast their votes.  The losing candidate secured votes from 24% of the population .  If he lost by 15,000 votes, how much did the winner poll?

A. 25,000
B. 26,250 
C. 25,750
D. 28,000

Question 95. A number is multiplied by 7, and then seven is added to the product.  If on dividing by 19, we get the quotient as a natural number, the smallest such number is

A. 7
B. 18
C. 19
D. 20

 

SECTION III

DIRECTIONS for questions 96 to 145:  Read the following passages and answer the question that follow
 

PASSAGE-1

Both media officials and newswriters or reporters thus have a primary economic function in relation to their respective parent corporation, and secondarily a social function presumed to be based on society’s need for accurate and complete information.  These roles are balanced through the choice of stories that, when published or broadcast, determine what information will be presented (and, as importantly, how it will be presented) to the public.  Not suprisingly, the yardstick by which stories are measured for inclusion in a news program or page is denied, at least in part, by a story’s adherence to general social values that reflect those of the bourgeois owner, advertiser, and news executive.

To the extent that any journalist or news organization attempts to fulfill its instrumental goal of ‘unbiased’ or ‘objective’ reportage, it must do so within the context of a process through which events  are daily excluded from the page or broadcast period while others are included.  No media organization despite the ‘New York Times’  hoary masthead boast-can print, publish, or broadcast “all the news that’s fit to print”.  As Time  magazine writer William Henry III put it :  “Journalism at best only approximates reality, because writers must inevitably select and compress.”  While fulfilling their assumed social  role  as providers of information to the public sphere, news professionals constantly, consistently, and of necessity must exclude some events while following and emphasizing others.

Thus editors, newswriters, and broadcast producers function by definition as information gatekeepers channeling specific types of information into publication or broadcast presentation while excluding others.   The concept of the news professional as gatekeeper was introduced in 1950 by David White and since then has been applied by various researchers to a wide range of news studies.  What is included and what is excluded is not haphazard, however.  These decisions obey a consistent set of social and political values that are generally acknowledged to reflect the view of publishers, politicians, and the status quo. 

Other mechanisms have been described that assign positions of relative importance tp each story accepted for publication and thus deemed suitable by the gatekeepers for the public sphere.  These  can be thought of as the channels through which the gatekeeper acts and are usually defined as the “agenda-setting’ function of news.  Socially, ‘agenda-setting theory maintains that gatekeeping serves a valuable societal function.   It reduces the array of issues before the public, presents a manageable agenda and helps bring about a society consensus.  Practically, the assumption is that audiences respond to cues presented by news editors and broadcasters-frequency of story repetition over time, length of time(or column inches0 given to a story, use of visuals with a story-as keys to the relative importance of any topic covered.  These and other factors thus define the specific medium’s, the general media’s and, by extension, society’s agenda of important issues.  The accepted assumption is that, these decisions  are  made by those who report the news, assign journalists to cover events, and edit those discrete stories into a newspaper page or broadcast package.  As Maxwell McCombs and Donald Shaw said their frequently cited 1972 study: “In choosing and displaying news, editors, newsroom staff, and broadcasters play an important part in shaping political reality”.

Proponents maintain that it is through this active shaping of the public vision that “the press serves a valuable societal function.  “Further, there is typically in any news market a high degree of unanimity among news professionals on the importance of any single story and, usually, on the way it will be covered.  This unanimity is due in part, as we will see, to the degree to which news value  is primarily defined by public or corporate officials through personal statements or press releases.  Supporters of the agenda-setting theory, which has gained wide currency among academic journalists and communication theorists, argue its efficacy whatever the specific subject.  It has been applied to political issues, environmental issues, and the general composition of a television news hour’s story lineup.

But none of the hundreds of newsroom decisions, each of which defines the way a specific event will be treated, are value-free.  The news is not objective but rather a continuous series of decisions that reflect general social and cultural principles.  As Gaye Tuchman  has written: News is a  window on the world….  But like any frame that delineates the world, the news frame may be considered problematic.  The view through the window depends on whether the window is large or small, has many panes or few, whether the glass is opaque or clear.”

Discussions of gate keeping and agenda setting are ways to define the size of the window and the angle at which it either reflects or refracts specific events.  The theory assumes that the decision on what to let in or through the gate, and the placement of a story or stories in society’s agenda, frame, writers of most persuasions agree, is a consistent ideology whose values reflect those of advertisers, media owners, and the ruling elite.  This perspective has been summarized by Herb Gans as “ the hidden values of moderation as opposed to extremism, individualism as opposed to collectivism, reform as opposed to tearing down the system, independence, the dignity of work, enlightened democracy, responsible capitalisms.” Not surprisingly, these values, which define what will be the news, are also those held by the ruling. “equestrian class”’ which owns the media and sets the nation’s political tone.

Question 96. According to the author, a news story line up reflects the values of

A. information gatekeepers
B. editors, newswriter & broadcast producers
C. advertisers, media owners & broadcast producers
D. all of the above

Question 97. According to the passage, what would the job profile of an information gatekeeper include?

A. choosing stories that serve  a valuable societal function
B. sifting through the day’s news and choosing unbiased and objective reports only 
C. keep tabs on what most news journalists cover
D. choosing stories which suit reigning ideologies and help shape society’ s agenda of important issues

Question 98. What does the statement “In choosing and displaying news, editors newsroom  staff, and broadcaster play an important part in shaping political reality”, in para 4 imply?

A. The story lineups go a long way in shaping/gearing social opinion towards   the dominant elitist political view
B. The story lineups reflect the news of the ruling political party 
C. The story line ups go a long way in deciding the dominant view
D. None of the above

Question 99. If the author is right about story line ups  being constructed then what would be the order of the following stories

A. The ruling political party splits
B. A naxalite is found dead in police custody 
C. A famous actress has been declared bankrupt
D. A bank in the capital is robbed in broad daylight

Question 100. Para 5 mentions that, the proponents believe that “the press serves a valuable societal function” as it actively shapes public vision.  What could the opponents believe in?

A. Under the guise of “unbiased” and “objective” news the press actually fools the public
B. The press sets up a politically correct issues agenda in the minds of the public. 
C. The press is a window on the world but is opinionated
D. Can’t say

Question 101. “Discussions of 'gate keeping' and 'agenda-setting' are ways to define the size of the window and the angle at which it either reflects or refracts specific events.”  The statement in para 7 implies.

A. the depth of study according to the agenda  set by the information gatekeepers
B. the stand taken on any particular issue 
C. the sorting out of events that need to be highlighted and those brushed under the table
D. all of the above

Question 102. Which one of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage?

A. Journalism imposes a self regulated discipline when it comes to sorting information.
B.  Every press story essentially has a hidden agenda.
C. All kinds of journalism is actually sifting through material and making it presentable.
D. Media officials, news writers and reporters are like company executives whose first loyalty is to their respective bosses.

 

PASSAGE -2

A third of a century has passed since the first U.S Surgeon General’s report on smoking persuasively assembled the scientific case on the lethal effects of the habit.  Yet the rest of the Federal Government deftly manipulated by the powerful tobacco industry and fearful of antagonizing the industry’s tens of millions of addicted customers, has allowed the cigarette to remain our most deadly but least regulated consumer product.  Its manufacturers, meanwhile, doggedly denied that the ever mounting medical evidence against them constituted conclusive proof, yet insisted, with ultimate brass, that smokers had been amply warned of the health risks they might be running- and got the Supreme Court essentially to agree with them.  As a result , Americans have prematurely lost 4 million collective years of life annually in our worst, if routinely accepted, public-health scandal.

Last week’s proposed settlement between the industry and the public’s representatives, if its often murky words can be satisfactorily  translated into federal statutory language, gives real hope of at last reining in the cigarette makers’ unconscionable conduct, in which the nation as  a whole has too long been complicitous.  Some key points to bear in mind about the deal:

It is tantamount to a rogue industry’s confession of decades of malfeasance, misfeasance and nonfeasance,.  True, most smokers have grasped that they were flirting with grave health consequence, but their awareness owed no thanks to the industry.  Its Council for Tobacco Research and in-house scientists failed to undertake serious, sustained inquiry into the casual links between smoking  and disease formation (no doubt out of fear that  what they might find would put them out of business).  Its Tobacco Institute picked apart every new Surgeon General’s report and trivialized the damning findings of dedicated independent public-health investigators.  And its executives, in what amounted to a premeditated conspiracy to dis-inform the American  people, continued to deny what they and their scientists, according to a critical mass of internal documents unearthed during the past decade, knew to be true about the addictive claims by victimized smokers, the industry is at least sparing the nation years of litigation that the companies where doomed to lose sooner or later and that might  delay  indefinitely the onset of vitally needed tobacco-control measures.

The punishment money is the least important part of the package.  It cannot resurrect all those millions of dead smokers or cure  those now terminally afflicted.  Besides, current high cigarette excise taxes already cover much of the states’ public health outlay to care sick smokers.  The settlement price is really meant to put a dent in  the American tobacco industry’s bottom line.  But by gradually jacking up the retail price of the 24 billion packs they sell in the U.S annually and saving much of their present multibillion-dollar-a-year advertising, promotion and merchandising budget (thanks to restrictions on those outlays in the settlement package), the companies will be able to meet the $15 billion-a-year punishment cost without remotely jeopardizing their solvency.

Teenage smoking will not go away-the industry’s survival depends on it.  However, by making cigarettes less accessible and more costly to youngsters, by de-glamorizing the habit through less seductive ads and a b ban on brand name promotions, and by stigmatizing it will a broad antismoking ad campaign paid for by the industry, the settlement materially strengthens the Clinton Administration initiative to discourage teen smoking.  It is, in effect, a vigorous exercise in preventive medicine that is both sound public policy and shrewd politics.  Remember, though, that kids smoke in part because it’s dangerous, not in spite of it, and forbidden fruit, no matter how badly spotted, rarely loses its allure.

The crucial element is the extent of the Food and Drug Administration’s regulatory control over the way cigarettes are manufactured and packaged.  All the marketing restrictions in the deal will amount to little if the product remains as deadly as ever.  And since the entire scientific case  against smoking is premised on dose-related data (e.g., the stronger the yields of the armful ingredients in each cigarette and the greater the smoker’s total intake of them, the higher the risk of dying prematurely), all medical logic suggests that forcing the manufacturers to reduce the toxic potency of their product  could significantly reduce the horrific toll t now exacts.  Under the proposed settlement, the FDA is reportedly to be granted the power to modify cigarettes in this fashion over time-without the industry’s fighting it tooth and claw or the need for congressional blessing of each new round of mandated yield reductions.  Of vital importance as well, the FDA would be similarly empowered to require far more conspicuous and dire health warnings on every cigarette pack and full disclosure of its harmful ingredients.

Unless this empowerment-to control not only the nicotine content of cigarettes, already approved by a federal court, but their tar, carbon monoxide, carcinogenic flavorings, and other additives as well is a basic part of the deal and not conditioned on the FDA’s have to meet evidentiary standards of the industry’s devising, the whole settlement package is a toothless wonder  and should be tabled.  Even granted essential regulatory muscle, the FDA needs both the resolve to carry forward its regimen and the funding to do it properly; perhaps revenues from a higher federal cigarette tax should be  earmarked for this purpose.  Arguments the government-certified weaker cigarettes might only encourage youngsters to take up the habit, would-be quitters not to, and addicted smokers to consume more cigarettes to compensate for their reduced fix per puff  cannot be airily dismissed.  But failure to outlaw the present high-yielding brands is a far more perilous course.

Unless the legal fine print unduly favors the industry ,  there is no political downside for either party in embracing the deal.  Bill Clinton has deservedly won wide public support by becoming the first avowedly antismoking President; it is Congress, so long under his party’s control, that deserves public scorn for letting a dirty business get away with mass mayhem all these years.  The lawmakers will now have the chance to redeem themselves, ideally without resort to the usual anti-regulatory rhetoric from the present Republican majority.  If government will not act effectively to protect the public health how can its very existence be justified?  Death, after all, is relentlessly nonpartisan.

Question 103. Why is the case against Big Tobacco called a public health scandal?

A. The  Federal Government allowed the cigarette to remain the most deadly and yet the least regulated consumer product
B.  Manufactures denied the ever mounting medical evidence against cigarettes and got the Supreme Court to agree with them.
C. The Federal government, fearful of antagonizing millions of addicted customers ignored all medical evidence
D. All of the above

Question 104. How will the proposed settlement between the tobacco industry and the public’s representative rein in the cigarette makers’ unconscionable conduct?

A. By turning the settlement into a Federal Statutory law
B. By making an otherwise complicitous nation realise the dangers of smoking 
C. A & B
D. None of the above

Question 105. In para 3 “pre-meditated conspiracy” is

A. the executives of tobacco industry trivializing the damning findings of dedicated independent public health investigators.
B. the fact that executives of tobacco industry were aware of the mounting evidence and decided  to ignore it. 
C. the fact that executives of tobacco industry had ample proof about the addictive and fatal nature of their product and yet decided to deny the same.
D. none of the above
Question 106. What is the silver lining to the tobacco industry’s confession?

A. By capitulating now, the industry has cut short the delay of vitally needed tobacco control measures
B. The $15 billion a year punishment cost will go a long way in creating a dent  in the tobacco industry’s bottomline 
C. The settlement will jack up the retail price of cigarettes
D. The settlement will discourage the teenage  smoking

Question 107. The settlement does not affect the Big Tobacco because

A. their advertising budget has been cut down so they will also save from their advertising, promotion and merchandising budgets
B. over the years, they have to raise their prices in a retail market 
C. A and B
D. current high cigarettes excise taxes cover much of the states’ public health outlay to care for sick smokers

Question 108. The author seems unimpressed by the estimated loss of teen smokers as predicted by Big Tobacco advocates and negotiations, this suggests that

A. kids smoke because it is forbidden rather than just fun
B. no amount of propaganda will change a teenage smokers mind 
C. A & B
D. none of the above

Question 109. Prior to the settlement the FDA regulatory control over the cigarette industry was minimal because

A. the FDA did not have any control over the toxic potency of the cigarette
B. the cigarette was  the least regulated consume product 
C. they did not have the funding or the  resolve to do so
D. less nicotine would any way just increase a smokers’ per day consumption

Question 110. The settlement has “no political downside for either party” because

A. for  bill Clinton this was another feather in his cap
B. the tobacco industry has relented and paid for its sins, in the eyes of the public 
C. the law  makers who had been misinformed had their chance to clear their conscience
D. all of the above

Question 111. The author is skeptical of FDA’s new role as defined by the settlement because

A. the FDA is known to be corrupt and lacks funds
B. the FDA should also have control over the entire ingredient list of cigarettes and does not need to table evidence before taking any measure 
C. the FDA should also get to control elements other than nicotine which are hazardous in cigarette
D. the FDA cannot control the high yielding brands

Question 112. Which one of the following has the most far reaching implication?

A. A rogue industry has been brought to book
B. Teenagers will now be aware of the hazards of smoking 
C. The empowerment of the FDA in control of manufacturing and packaging of cigarettes
D. The settlement is made into federal statutory law

Question 113. The FDA has come out triumphant because

A. they can now change  the profile of cigarettes without the industry or the politicians interference.
B. now it does not have to face the industry’s antagonism 
C. they can now decide promotion budgets
D. none of the above

Question 114. “Death, after all, is relentlessly nonpartisan”. Why does the author say this?

A. Death does not belong to any party
B.  If the Government does not act effectively then that government will die
C. The author is warning  the government that smoking as a public health hazard will have its effects on them as well
D. None of the above

 

PASSAGE-3 

Obtaining solutions to the problem of waste disposal has become a priority of extreme importance in every nation of the world.  Increased ecological awareness, combined with the desire to safeguard natural resources and the environment, have brought about a need to improve the cycle of obtaining raw materials, their disposal and reutilization. 

Two operating philosophies have gained acceptance in this sphere: saving on consumption, i.e. avoiding the squandering of resources, and the recovery of materials contained in waste, which can be reused in the productive process. 

In Italy, which has a dense population concentrated in a territory of particular environmental value, the need to find a solution to the waste problem has given impetus to scientific and technological research in this sector, resulting in the application of valuable technical innovations. 

The production of solid waste in Italy has increased by over 50% in past decade, from 0.7 kg per inhabitant per day in 1984 to more than1.1 kg per inhabitant per day in 1994.  As regards the content of the waste, there has been an increase in the lightest portion (paper, cardboard, textiles) resulting from the increased use of throwaway containers and packaging in general. 

The presence of organic substances has diminished, now accounting for around 20 to 25% of waste material, while there has been a growth in the use of plastic (8 to 12%) and glass (8 to 10%) . The average heating value of these materials is 1,500 to 2,000 kcal per kg. 

Upto now, sanitary landfill has been the most widely used method of waste disposal, for reasons of cost-effectiveness as compared to other technologies.  The artificial waterproofing of the ground beneath the landfill with geomembrane(polyvinylchloride or polyethylene) is common.  The waste is compacted with special mobile machines and covered with a layer of earth every two or three metres each day to avoid the spreading of odours and the scattering of waste. 

The gathering and employment of the biogas which forms during the anaerobic fermentation of the waste mass is of particular interest.  This gas, chiefly constituted of methane (over 55% of the total volume is an excellent fuel (5,500 kcal/Nm3) and can be used for the production of thermic energy and electricity as well as (after some additional treatment) to fuel motor vehicles. 

The results of the technical solutions adopted in the waste disposal centres of large Italian cities such as Turin, Milan, Bologna and Brescia are notable.  In Turin, the collected gas partly feeds a co-generation power station, and partly a purification plant for the elimination of carbon dioxides: after compression into cylinders, the fuel allows for the waste-collection trucks to be powered. 

Another technology, thermodestruction and energy recovery, has been adopted primarily in big cities or large regions.  The heating value of the waste is generally high because of the presence of plastic materials, packaging and composites, which makes other solutions such as recycling the materials or the production of compost (organic fertilizer)  inefficient by comparison. The process requires combustion in furnaces. 

In the normal thermodestruction process, after the drying phase, there arises, ‘competition’ between two extremely diverse phenomena: combustion, or thermodestruction via oxidization, and pyrolysis, or themodestruction in the absence of oxygen.  In between these two processes lies gasification, for while combustion prevails close to the walls of the high-temperature combustion chamber, inside the combustible mass where poorly aerated zones exist, pyrolysis, which ‘distils;’ the  most volatile components and recombines them into simpler organic compounds, takes place. 

The thermodestruction process applied, using plants available on the market, are:

-                   incineration via direct combustion, which destroys the potential polluting capacity of the waste by oxidizing the organic substances at high temperatures and mineralizing the inorganic substances present.  As  a result, there is  weight reduction of 30% and 10% respectively of the incoming materials, which allows for the daily disposal of waste rather than its accumulation;

-                   gasification(oxidization-‘distillation’) which transforms the largest portion of the potential energy contained in the initial amount of waste into a gas current and generates a low calorific value gas, unsuitable for transport but usable in internal combustion engines for the generation of electric and thermal energy;

-                   pyrolysis, which  causes the physical and chemical decomposition of waste by the destructive distillation of the organic matter and the chemical bonds, obtained by reheating them at atmospheric pressure in the absence of air, creating solids  and gas with high calorific value. 

The choice of any of these forms of energy recovery depends, apart from their reliability , cost and technological maturity, on the appropriateness of each.

It is worth pointing out that, to be truly effective, thermodestruction must be applied on purified waste, for if the waste has been only partially purified, a portion, consisting of inert metals weighing about 10% of the entire mass, could block the process.

The experience of those working in the sector continues to confirm the appropriateness of mechanical treatment of urban and other comparable waste before its thermodestruction.  In this kind of thermodestruction plant, particular importance is attached to the reduction of environmental impact; in fact, it is generally supplied with adequate plants to deal with polluting emissions and improve the quality of air in areas near the industrial installation.

In waste treatment plants, the most commonly used process is composting, i.e. separating of the organic position of waste, to be subsequently transformed into organic fertilizer for agricultural use.  This microbiological process has obvious economic and environmental advantages:  it restores nutritive elements(nitrogen, phosphorous, potassium, microelements)  present in the waste to the ground and permits savings on costly mineral fertilisers, besides utilising relatively less complex technology and therefore allowing for lower managing costs.  In addition, certain raw products such as sewage sludge and the residue  from agro-industrial activity can be utilised.

The process is undertaken in spaces protected from the weather, or else in bioreactors.  The waste previously selected and homogenised, is treated to microbe action for a period of at least two months.

The end-product obtained, perfectly sanitised, is primarily used to fertilize specialist cultivation such as horticulture, orchards, nurseries and gardens.

For some years now, the philosophy of guarding against squandering resources, and according value to materials contained in waste, has been gaining strength in Italy.  Greater efforts are being applied to the technique of separated collection of waste, divided by category:  paper, glass, plastic, aluminium etc.  The materials thus obtained are collected and sent to treatment centres.

In some Italian regions, the transformation to new raw materials allows for the recovery of over 10% of the waste, especially glass, plastic containers, paper and cardboard.  Many regional administrations plan to recycle over 30% of the waste produced in the short term (three to five years).

This new situation has caused interesting research to develop in most sectors, among which the most notable is that of reutilizing plastic material obtained from the collection of waste which has been divided into separate categories.

Question 115. According to the passage why has obtaining solutions to the problems of waste disposal become a priority in Italy

A. Italy has  a dense population concentrated in a territory of particular environmental value
B. Increased ecological awareness, combined with the desire to safeguard natural resources and the environment in Italy 
C. the philosophy of guarding against resources and according value to materials contained in waste has been gaining strength in Italy
D. All of the above

Question 116. What is waste, in Italy today, composed of?

A. In every 0.7 kg around 25% is organic and about the same percentage is plastic and glass
B. In every 1.1 kg around 25% is organic and about the same percentage is plastic and glass 
C. There has been a 25% increase in the lightest portion
D. Solid has increased by over 50% in the past decade

Question 117. Which of the following statements are not from the passage?

A. Bio-gas fuels waste-collection trucks in Turin
B. The proportion of organic substances was much more than 25% earlier 
C. The sanitary land fills are the best and thus are widely used in Italy even today
D. The average heating value of organic materials, plastic and glass is 1,500 to 2,500 kcal per kg

Question 118. All the following statements are false, except

A. in the normal thermodestructions process combustion follows gasification and pyrolysis
B.  thermodestruction via oxidisation is pyrolysis
C. thermodestruction in the absence of oxygen is gasification
D. in the normal thermodestruction  process combustion is followed by gasification and pyrolysis

Question 119. The advantages of thermodestruction processes does not include

A. incineration via combustion allows for daily disposal of waste
B.  pyrolysis creates solids and gas with high calorific value
C. gassification can be easily used to generate electric and thermal energy
D. the waste can be partially purified in thermodestruction processes

Question 120. Thermodestruction plants reduce environmental impact by

A. planting adequate number of trees near the industrial installation
B.  using composting to enhance the nutritive elements of waste
C. purifying the waste first and then using it in thermo-destruction plants
D. none of the above

Question 121. Composting is used widely in waste treatment plants, because

A. it has economic and environmental advantages which cannot be ignored
B. it transforms the organic portion of waste into organic fertilizer for agricultural use. 
C. these plants use less complex technology and require smaller budgetary allocations
D. all of the above

Question 122. “According value to materials contained in waste, has been gaining strength in -Italy”

A. The local administrations now have chalked out viable plans for recycling waste
B. New research for reusing waste is being developed in various sectors 
C. Separation of various categories of waste at the first stage of collection
D. All of the above

Question 123. Which of the following factors are essential while choosing an effective and viable form of energy recovery?

A. Economic and Environmental friendly
B. Reliability, cost and technological maturity 
C. Making optimum use of waste
D. All of the above

Question 124. What could be the possible title of the passage?

A. Waste and the Environment
B. Disposing Waste 
C. Productive  Waste
D. Waste Disposal

 

PASSAGE-4

In the pioneering days aviation, birds served as a model for the design of planes.  And the wings of today’s modern jets still bear a resemblance to those of our feathered friends.

In order to fulfill their most important function, that is, to generate as much lift as possible while reducing drag to a minimum, aircraft wings require a specific form.  The contour of the wing, or profile, as they say in airline jargon, plays a key role.  The wing is more curved on the top than on the bottom.  This curvature force the air to flow faster above the wing than beneath it.

The fast-moving air produces low pressure, while the slow – moving air produces high pressure.  It’s this difference in pressure that creates lift.  Since approximately two thirds of the lift is generated by suction on the upper side of the wing, aircraft designers make the surface of the wings as smooth as possible to prevent  any disruption of the airflow.

At takeoff , a large aircraft  has to accelerate to between 250 and 300 km/h.  But even such speeds would not enable a jet with a full payload to take off.  Additional aids are therefore built into the wings to create sufficient lift.  These include the large flaps, known as trailing edge flaps, which are located at the back of the wing and span three quarters of its length.  When extended  and lowered.  They increased the are of the wing and the curvature.  Special flaps at the front of the wing, called leading edge flaps, also help to increase lift.

The trailing edge flaps also have an important function during landing, when they are extended much further than at take off.  On the one hand., they create drag, which contributes to the overall braking effect; on the other, they develop the necessary lift to compensate for the decrease in airflow as the plane decelerates before landing

At cruising speed, drag should be as low as possible,.  And here aerodynamicists have several options,  Computer simulations and wind tunnel experiments are conducted to optimize the profile and the geometric contours of the wing surfaces for different aircraft types.  The angle at which the wings sweep back determines the drag at cruising speed.  And the more slender the wing, the fewer possibilities the air has to flow upwards at the wingtips and so generate undesirable currents or “ wingtip vortices”.

The wingtips of many modern airliners are also fitted with miniature wings pointing upwards almost vertically.  These winglets are designed to minimize the decelerating effects of the air exchange. 

Although their main task is to produce as much lift and as little drag as possible, wings also perform a number of other functions which enable the aircraft to fly.  For example, when a plane is banking on the wings:  the traditional ailerons on the outer wing, the smaller back trailing edge areas between the landing flap segments, and the spoilers.

Spoilers are flaps built into the upper surface of the wing, which the pilot can raise on either side, as required.  The spoilers decrease the lift slightly, thus forcing the wings downwards and enabling the aircraft to bank.  When activated on both wings simultaneously, they serve as a highly efficient air brake – not just in flight but also after touchdown.

But the wings are not only an important aerodynamic feature of an aircraft;  they also have to be able to carry the engines and the large-capacity fuel tanks.  This burden, however, is actually beneficial.  Although the combined weight of the large engines and the fuel (thousands of liters of kerosene) weighs by force of the lift.  Mounting the engines on the wings has another significant effect:  the wings can be built considerably lighter than if the engines were installed at the rear of the aircraft or the  tanks placed in the fuselage.

Wing design and optimization are the aircraft manufacture’s  most important-and most costly-undertakings.  Tailored to each specific aircraft type, the wings help determine how safely, how fast and how economically an aircraft can fly.

Question 125. Which one of the following gives an appropriate profile of an aircraft wing?

A. Like the wings of a bird
B. It is more curved at the top than at the bottom and has a smooth surface 
C. The curvature of the wings, with the fuel tanks, engines and various flaps constitutes the profile
D. The contour of the wing

Question 126. “An aircraft wing is specifically designed for takeoff”.  Which of the following is more helpful  for take off?

A. The curvature of the top part of the wing allows air to move fast producing low pressure and the opposite works for the lower part of the wing, to create a lift.
B. The curvature of the wing allows fast moving air to increase speed and  angle of the wings helps create the lift. 
C. Leading edge flaps at the front of the aircraft help increase lift
D. The smooth surfaces of the wing allow for air to move fast

Question 127. What extra devices are required to enable a jet with full payload to takeoff?

A. Trailing edge flaps at the back, leading edge flaps at the front of the aircraft
B. Trailing edge flaps at the front, leading edge flaps at the back of the wing 
C. Trailing edge flaps at the back, leading edge flaps at the front of the wing
D. Trailing edge flaps at the front, leading edge flaps at the back of the aircraft

Question 128. Which of the following statements does not follow from the passage?

A. Wing design goes a long way in determining the speed, the distance and he safety of an aircraft
B. The more slender a wing, the more the risk the aircraft faces of getting caught in a whirlwind of air currents flowing in opposite directions 
C. Spoilers are used when a pilot needs to brake after he has landed
D. Aircraft inventors even today swear by  the flight of birds and are inspired by them

Question 129. With reference to the passage,  put the following statements in order in which an aircraft takes off.

A]  The trailing edge flaps are extended and lowered.
B]  The wings are swept back at an angle.
C]  At 250-300 km/h the difference in pressure of the fast moving air and slow moving air creates low pressure and high pressure to ensure a lift.
D]  the leading edge flaps are also put to work

A. CDAB
B. BADC
C. CADB
D. CBAD

Question 130. With reference to the passage, put the following statements in the order in which air aircraft lands

A. The Spoilers are put to work
B. The trailing edge flaps are extended to their utmost/limits 
C. The trailing edge flaps are used to help the plane while decelerating
D. The   winglets minimize the declaration

Question 131. Why is wing design a crucial part of an aircraft manufacturer’s work agenda?

A. Each is tailored for specific aircraft type
B. Optimization of wing design goes a long way in ensuring a safe flight 
C. Wings determine  how safely, how fast and how economically an aircraft can fly
D. All  of the above

Question 132. The author of this passage could possibly be

A. an aviation journalist
B. an aeronautic engineer 
C. a pilot
D. not clear from the passage

 

PASSAGE-5
   
If imitation is indeed the greatest form of flattery, choreographer Pina Bausch regularly receives more compliments than she can count.  Not only has she revolutionized modern dance.  The eccentric style she has evolved with her Tanzeater Wuppertal over more than two decades has woven itself into  the very fabric of contemporary aesthetics.  Fans find traces of her influence not just in the dance world but in theater, film, video clips and even fashion shows.  Guest appearances have made her familiar to audiences throughout the world, and have often led to collaborations with host cities- with Palermo, Madrid and Los Angeles, for example, and most recently with Hong Kong.

Yet despite her international celebrity status, the 56-year-old choreographer can still provoke both yawns and boos from those who attend a performance expecting an evening  of “entertainment”.  The Tanztheater Wuppertal seldom dances, and its theater has neither plot not protagonist.  Nor does the ensemble perform the kinds of expressive contortions often associated with “modern dance”.  In rejecting conventional choreography, Bausch attempts to come closer to its roots in ritual and celebration.  The ritual explored are typically banal:  bodybuilders flexing their muscles, a diva applying lipstick, a dandy smoothing his lapels.

Such vignettes are fused into a vast collage of human foibles, angst and aggression, seasoned with burlesque humor and a surrealist whimsy often  regarded as typically German.  The brisk crossover patterns the dancers create when entering and leaving the stage have long since become a Bausch trademark.  Though their paths may intersect, individuals rarely meet: each is locked in his own invariable track.  Thus, rare occasions when the entire company moves in unison create a feeling of exhilaration scarcely possible in conventional choreography.

 “I’m not so much interested in how people move as in what moves them”’ Bausch stresses.  Even as a child, she had danced in the pub her parents owned in the town of  Solingen, as “an expression of emotions that couldn’t be put into words”.  The choreographer remains distrustful of attempts to verbalize her themes.   Shy of interviews,. The prefers to speak through the interactions on the stage.  And though she should be accustomed to standing ovations, when she takes her bows at the end of a performance,  she resembles nothing so much  as a startled fawn seeking shelter .

 1n 1972, Bausch was invited to choreograph the bacchanal for the Wuppertal production of Wagner’s Tannhauser; the erotic urgency of her staging led to a contract as Wuppertal’s ballet director.  In the opera house tat nestles against the slate –covered mansion where the radical political theorist Friedrich Engles was born, Bausch launched her own revolution. In 1974, for Gluck’s Iphigenie on Tauris, the singers were banished to boxes in the audience, while dancers took over the stage.  The following year, the director scandalized traditionalists with a production of Stravinsky’s The Rite of Spring for which she used taped music so that the sage could be extended over the orchestra pit and entirely covered with damp soil, thus stressing the work’s primeval quality.

Unconventional settings quickly become another Bausch trademark.  The choreographer has filled the stage with dried leaves, with peat and with fake carnations, flooded it with water and planted it thickly with giant sequoia trees.  Performers carry their own props in and out of these settings, trample the carnations, roll in the dirt, splash in the water and climb  the trees.  For Bausch’s elemental dramas, nothing less than total immersion will surface.  Yet for the choreographer, such behavior is no more remarkable than pedestrians crossing a busy street.  “Compared with reality”  she insists this is nothing.”  In her vision of the stage as a crossroads, there is room for every imaginable idiosyncrasy, skill and physical type.  Indeed, the 27 regular members of the ensemble, look less like a dance company than a random sampling  of  passengers on a crosstown bus.

The eclectic mix is an integral part of the gesamtkunstwerk Pina Bausch strives to create.  Rather than being pressed into a anonymous chorus-line image, each player projects a personal style and often speaks in his or her own mother tongue during a performance.  The linguistic melange is a reinforcement of the collage-like staging and the prerecorded mix of music, which can range from baroque to blues.

Far from presenting her performers with preconceived scenarios and movements in creating new work, Bausch draws on their own fantasies and experiences.  She poses questions, asks the dancers to show her things:  six ways of expressing tenderness, the curl of a wave, saying hello  or goodbye, the sound of silence, the scars on their bodies.  In the dilapidated former cinema the Tanzheater Wuppertal uses as a rehearsal hall, dancers respond with words and gestures that the choreographer videotapes, reviews and shapes into a final composition.  Bausch’s chain-smoking concentration on each nuance creates an atmosphere charged with dramatic energy and creative tension.  Yet she radiates, all the while, that remote, ethereal air which can still mesmerize those who are fortunate enough to see her dance.

Question 133. Which statements in the passage corroborate the following statement “ If imitation is indeed the greatest compliment, Pina Bausch regularly receives more compliments than she can count”?

A. Guest appearances have made her familiar to audiences throughout the world
B. Fans find traces of her influence not just in the dance world but in theater, film, video clips and even fashion shows 
C. The eccentric style she has evolved… has woven itself into the very fabric of contemporary aesthetics
D. None of the above

Question 134. 134.    Which statement in the passage corroborates the following statement “The choreographer can provoke both yawns and boos from those who attend a performance expecting an evening of ‘entertainment’”?

A. The ensemble performs the kinds of expressive contortions often associated with ‘modern dance’
B. Her ballet is a string of vignettes 
C. Bausch rejects conventional Choreography to come close to ritual and celebration
D. None of the above

Question 135. “In the early 70s Pina Bausch launched her own revolution.”  Which of the following statement proves the above?

A. The performers carried their own props in and out of these settings
B. She launched her own radical political theory like Frederick Engels 
C. Using taped music  for a Stravinsky production, unconventional setting and looking upon the stage as crossroads
D. None of the above

Question 136. What is “a Bausch trademark”?

A. Elements in her choreography that are original and repeated often
B. A copyright of her work
C. Unconventional settings
D. All of the above

Question 137. Which country is Pina Bausch likely to hail from?

A. Spain
B. Germany 
C. America
D. Hongkong

Question 138. What reiterates her statement “I’m  not so much interested in how people move as in what moves them?

A. The dance company the people from across 15 nationalities
B. Banal ritualistic vignettes 
C. Performers roll in the dirt and splash the water and climb the trees on stage
D. Pina Bausch draws on the performers’ own fantasies and experiences to shape a final composition

 

PASSAGE-6

Sharp eyes, sharp ears, a keen nose and rhythm in their blood-that’s what papermakers have to bring to their workshop.   In Mino district, not far from Nagoya in central Japan, artisans have perfected a centuries-old method of making paper.  The end result is unique, more versatile than almost any other, as costly  as silk, and indispensable for restorers the world over.

“After  a day or two, almost anyone can manage to coax a few sheets of paper from the vat, but the risk of accepting an order for 50 sheets of identical weight and identical quality should only be taken on after a decade’s experience”, warns 76 year old Sayoko Furuta, the “Mother Queen” of the paper maker’s art in Mino.  Her delicate paper has saved the life of many  beautiful but crumbling scroll, document and ancient map, both at home and abroad.  It pH-neutral, guaranteed for centuries against chemical change, and , even when soaked in glue, doesn’t tear.  Whereas paper produced industrially from wood shavings turns yellow an crumbly with age, the paper made here by hand grows whiter and matures, like a good wine.

Known as washi, this paper long fulfilled important functions in Japanese life.  It was used for lanterns, umbrellas, fans and scrolls, articles which were in use day in, day out, for years, and stood the test  of time.  Jackets and raincoats of treated washi fitted their wearers snugly, while sliding paper windows diffused the sunlight, bathing interiors in a soft and even light.

Hardly any of these articles can be found in Japanese household today, and as often as not they are limitations made of industrially produced paper which is cheaper.  In its heyday at the turn of the century, Mino was home to 4,700 workshops.   Now there are just 30, employing 69 craftsmen each specializing in a particular kind of paper .  Mino has developed into one of three “large”  papermaking centers in Japan, renowned for its tear-proof paper with a very smooth surface.

 In 1971 the Ministry of Education aware of the high quality of Mino paper and eager to protect the craft, declared washi part of Japan’s national heritage.  In view of the dwindling number of workshops and  the wide range of different grades of paper they produce, the rivalries of yesteryear have disappeared.  Today all of Mino’s master papermakers are happy to sit down at one table and drink a cup of sake together.

 A stroll through Warabi, a small riverside village in Mino district, is balm to the eyes.  The houses are regularly distributed at the foot of the hill like scales on a fish, all with their front doors facing south, and with large forecourts.  Not just some murky back room, but the best room in the house is given over to work:  the lightest room,  immediately to the right as your come in, mostly  four by four meters in size, houses all the tools needed for papermaking,

 Now and again  scent of sweetish vapor wafts out of the vat;  pieces of mulberry bark the raw material for washi, are soaked and then simmered for a few hours in a week lye.  This dissolves the natural resins, leaving the fibers lying loosely next to each other.   After a final meticulous inspection, the bark is mashed into a pulp.  Here and there the visitor will come across a long building echoing t merry chatter.  Kneeling at a trough, their legs folded like pocket-knives, elderly ladies inspect the tip of every fiber under cold running water.  They notice soft black impurities at once by sight, light woody growth by tough, and both by experience.  Now it is up to the master-who may well be a woman-to scoop out regular sheets from the vat in which the fibers are immersed.  To do this a screen made of fine bamboo or silk  is used.  The next day, the pile is pressed, and the damp paper is drawn over wooden panels with soft brushes and dried out in the sun.

To explain the intricacies of making washi, master papermaker Danjaku Ichihara draws a simple comparison:  “A cake will always work:  500 grams of flour a pound of butter, 125 grams of sugar- the proportion don’t change, no matter whether its raining, snowing or there’s a thunderstorm raging outside.  For our paper, though, we have no such fixed recipe”.  The masters change their proportions almost intuitively according to the air pressure, temperature and humidity.  The ingredients are organic, and their behavior varies with the weather.

 “We   also have to plan production so that we have good drying weather when we’re finishing with the scooping process”, work in a very short time.  “My parents were better weather forecasters than the experts on the radio”.  He laughs.

 The quality of the paper can also suffer as a result of another kind of “atmospheric”  disturbance.  “When I’m making these large sheets with my  husband, we declare a marital truce”, says Mrs.  Asako Ohta, as she dips the long frame into the vat in unison with him “A number of orders have come in during some domestic crisis.  The result was akin to scrambled eggs on the bamboo screen”

 Married couples form the cores of the team in a workshop.  Outsiders are rarely employed.  Although it’s mostly the women who stand at the vat the whole day, while their  husbands boil the bark and dry the paper, it’s the latter whose names appear on the certificates, and who do the taking in negotiations.  But the lady masters are content to leave these formalities to the menfolk while they get on with more important matters, such as refining techniques.

 But  the papermakers are only one section of the orchestra.  Without the crafts men who make the screens, the precisely trimmed framed and boiling utensils, and without the farmers who grow the mulberry trees, no master would ever be able to produce a single sheet of paper.  But the number of such workshops and plantations has sunk to a dangerous level:  there are only five screen weavers and three frame-makers left in the whole of Japan.

Restorers of ancient documents and calligraphic scrolls are the only people still absolutely dependent on handmade paper, Sotaro Yamaguchi in Yaizu city needs three different kinds of paper to restore the suppleness to scrolls which have grown brittle with age.  “We are very worried about the short age of apprentice papermakers”, says Yamaguchi. “Papermaking is like an oral tradition, passed on from generation to generation like the baton in a relay race.  If it’s once dropped, the whole rhythm si lost, a rhythm which has been handed on from person to person for over a thousand years”.

Question 139. The advantages of washi  over industrially produced paper are

A. It can stand the test of time
B. The ingredients used to make washi are sensitive to weather 
C. It is more expensive and therefore collector’s material
D. It is waterproof and tearproof

Question 140. The washi is fast disappearing because

A]  if takes years to master it.
B]  the papermakers are happy to sit down at one table  and drink a cup of sake together
C]  Washi makers believe the skill to be a family tradition.
D]  most of the papermakers face domestic crisis  very often

A. A&C
B. only A
C. B & D
D. only B

Question 141. Which of the following statements from the passage proves that washi is an integral and the most important part of their makers’ life?

A]  The rivalries of yesteryears have disappeared
B]  All their houses have the front doors facing the south
C]  The best room in the house is given over to work.
D]  In a domestic crisis, a married couple declares marital truce before they start work.

A. only A
B. A & C 
C. B & C
D. only C

Question 142.

What are the external factors that can affect washi making?}
A]  Fewer number of screen weavers and frame makers.
B]  Erratic weather conditions.
C]  No written treatise on wash making
D] A depreciation of the yen.

A. only C
B. A & B
C. only D
D. A & C

Question 143. According to the passage, what is process of washi making?
A]  The bark is washed into a pulp.
B]  The fibres are inspected under cold running water and then immersed in varts from which regular sheets are scooped out
C]  Pieces of mulberry bark are soaked and then simmered for a few hours in a weak lye.
D]  The next day the pile is pressed and damp paper is drawn over wooden panels with soft brushes and dried out in the sun

A. CABD
B. ABCD
C. BCAD
D. CBAD

Question 144. “Restorers of ancient documents and calligraphic scrolls are the only people still absolutely dependent on handmade paper”  because

A]  it is a pH-neutral guaranteed for centuries against chemical changes and even when soaked in glue, doesn’t tear
B]  the ingredients are organic and hence the paper is conductive to any kind of weather
C]  with age it grows whiter and matures
D] it is tear proof and water proof.

A. ABD
B. ACD 
C. only D
D. BCD
Question 145. Which  statements in the passage prove that washi making can be learnt primarily if it’s handed down from one’s parents?

A]  Paper making is like an oral tradition.
B]  Married couples form the core of the team in a workshop.
C]  Outsiders are rarely employed
D]  Sayoko  Furuta, the “Mother  Queen”  of the paper makers’ art in Mino

A. All of the above
B.  A,B & C 
C. A & C
D. Only D

 

SECTION IV

DIRECTIONS for questions 146 to 150: Refer to the table below.
 

 COMMODITY PRICE INDEX

Commodity

1996

1997

1998

Rice

Wheat

Groundnut oil

Sugar

Jute

Cotton

897.2

517.5

827.8

565.3

940

506

897.2

519.8

867.4

56.4

928.7

510

898.6

503.2

949.9

560

962

512.2

 
Base index 1969-70=100
Price in a year=Price in 1969-70 X Index in the year/100
For any commodity, Price in year A/Price in year B=Index in year A/Index in year B

Question 146. If the price of 1 kg of rice in 1996 was Rs.25, what is its price in 1998?

A. Rs.25.65
B. Rs.25.04 
C. Rs.25.12
D. Rs.26.14

Question 147. Which commodity showed the greatest percentage increase in price between 1996 and 1998?

A. Cotton
B. Groundnut oil 
C. Wheat
D. Jute

Question 148. What is the price increase in percentage per kg of jute between 1996 and 1998?

A. 2.29
B. 2.41
C. 2.34
D. 2.31

Question 149. If cotton price per kg in 1969-70 was Rs.30, what is the price increase in Rs./kg between 1997 and 1998?

A. 1.91
B. 1.85
C. 2.14
D. None of these

Question 150. What is the ratio of the price/kg of groundnut oil and cotton in 1997?

A. 1.97
B. 1.85
C. 2.14
D. Indeterminate

  DIRECTIONS for questions 151 to 155: Refer to the table (figure in Rs.crore) below
 

Company

Revenues

Profits

Assets

GM

Ford

Mitsubishi

Exxon

WalMart

178,174

153,627

142,688

128,922

119,299

6,698

6,920

268

388

3,3526

 

228,888

279,097

55,070

71,407

45.525

 


Performance of top 5 companies in 1997-98
Asset turnover ratio=Revenue/Assets
Return on assets=Profits/Assets
Question 151. Which  company had the largest  return on total assets?

A. WalMart
B. Food 
C. GM
D. Exxon

Question 152. Which  company had the largest turnover ratio?

A. GM
B. Mitsubishi 
C. WalMart
D. Exxon

Question 153. What is the WalMart’s profit as a percentage of its revenue?

A. 2.75
B. 2.52 
C. 2.95
D. 2.63

Question 154. If in 1998-99 GM’s assets grow by 10% and profit by 20% with the company maintaining its profit to revenue ratio, what would be GM’s asset turnover ratio in 1998-99?

A. 0.8492
B. 0.9879 
C. 0.6539
D. 0.7879

Question 155. The asset turnover ratio for the top 3 revenue companies taken together is

A. 0.6319
B. 0.8427 
C. 0.7128
D. 0.9893

  DIRECTIONS for questions 156 to 160: Refer to the graph below



Imports in a quarter=[Inventory in that quarter] + [Sales in that quarter] – [Production in that quarter]-[Inventory in previous quarter]
Question 156. How many tonnes of petroleum products were imported in Q1 of 1998?

A. 15,000
B.  20,000
C. 5,000
D. 10,000

Question 157. What was the percentage change in sales of petroleum products between Q4 and Q1 of 1998?

A. -8.8
B. -9.09 
C. 9.09
D. 8.5

Question 158. In Q3 had imports been at Q2 levels what would be in inventory at the end of Q3?

A. 10,000
B. 15,000 
C. 5,000
D. 20,000

Question 159. What is the inventory to imports ratio for Q4 of 1998?

A. -0.5
B. 1.5 
C. -1.25
D. 0.55

Question 160. Which quarter had the maximum sales to production ratio?

A. Q4 1998
B. Q1 1998 
C. Q3 1998
D. Q2 1998

 

DIRECTIONS for questions 161 to 16 5: Refer to the pie-charts below

LUXURY CAR MARKET SHARE



Question 161. How many luxury cars did Honda City sell?

A. 1,864
B. 1,834 
C. 1,814
D. 1,886

Question 162. As Compared to the same period in 1997, how many less cars did Tata Safari sell in 1998?

A. 925
B. 965 
C. 985
D. 915

Question 163. In April-June 1998, if the total cars sold in the country were 12,582; what was Honda City’s share in the total car sales in the country?

A. 13.09%
B. 15.93% 
C. 16.75%
D. 14.58%

Question 164. What is the average  monthly sale (number of cars) for Tata Safari for the period April-June 1998?

A. 586
B. 443 
C. 493
D. 612

Question 165. How many more cars did Opel Astra sell in April-June 1997 than in April-June 1998?

A. 564
B. 644 
C. 424
D. 384

  DIRECTION  for questions 166 to 170: Refer to the graph below.



Year      Total Cost as % of revenue      Total revenue (Rs.crore)
1996-97             85                                         12,562
1997-98             94                                         15,872

Question 166. What was the difference between the lease rentals in 1997-98 and the engine maintenance cost in 1996-97 (in Rs.crore)?

A. 984.6    
B. 1126.8 
C. 868.5
D. 795.8

Question 167. What was the percentage increase in  salaries and wages between 1996-97 and 1997-98?

A. 39.72
B. 48.16 
C. 45.6
D. 30.4

Question 168. Office and administration expenses increased by what amount  between1996-97 and 1997-98?

A. 280.5
B. 312.68 
C. 372.45
D. 421.8

Question 169.

If depreciation, financial charges, lease rentals, insurance, and office and administration are fixed costs, what was the total variable costs in 1997-98?

A. 9,871
B. 11,221 
C. 13,241
D. 15,461

Question 170. What  was the profit made in 1997-98?

A. 996.5
B. 912.6 
C. 872.4
D. 952.3

 

DIRECTIONS FOR QUESTIONS 171 TO 175:  Refer to the venn diagram below



Total number of Shikakai users = 85
Total number of shampoo users = 105.
Total number of soap users = 125.
Number of respondents who use both shampoo and Shikakai but no soap =10
Number of respondents who use both Shikakai and soap but no shampoo =20
Number of respondents who do not use shampoo or soap =75
Number of respondents who don’t use any or use all three= 30

Question 171. How many respondents use at least one of the three(soap, shampoo, or Shikakai)?

A. 240
B. 185 
C. 215
D. 195

Question 172. How many respondents use Shikakai only or both shampoo and soap only?

A. 100
B. 110
C. 90
D. 80

Question 173. How many respondents use either Shikakai or shampoo?

A. 175
B. 185 
C. 225
D. 150

Question 174. How many respondents use all three or none?

A. 25
B. 30 
C. 15
D. 40

Question 175. What is the difference in the number of respondents who use at least two and the ones who use at least one of three?

A. 90
B. 120 
C. 120
D. 110

  DIRECTIONS    for questions 176 to 180:  Refer to the data below.

Four dogs of breeds A,B,C, and D win the top four prizes at a kennel show.  Their owners are  Edwin, Funky, Godot, and Harry not necessarily in that order.  The dogs names are Jack, Kozy, Lucky, and Manny again not necessarily in that order.
   1]  Godot’s dog wins neither first nor second prize.
     2]  The  dog of breed C wins first prize.
     3]  Manny wins second prize
     4]  Jack is of breed A
     5]  Funky’s dog is of breed D wins fourth prize
     6]  Harry’s dog is Kozy

Question 176. The first prize is won by

A. Manny
B. Kozy 
C. Jack
D. Lucky

Question 177. Godot’s dog is

A. Jack
B. Kozy 
C. Lucky
D. Manny

Question 178.

Lucky is owned by

A. Edwin
B. Harry 
C. Godot
D. Funky

Question 179. What is Kozy’s breed?

A. A
B. C
C. B
D. D

Question 180. Who wins the third prize?

A. Jack
B. Kozy 
C. Lucky
D. Manny
 

DIRECTIONS for questions 181 to 185:  Each question is followed by two statements.

Mark A if statement I alone, but not statement II alone, is sufficient to answer the question
Mark B if statement II alone, but not statement I alone, is sufficient to answer the question.
Mark C if the question can be answered with the help of both statements together, but not with the help of either statement alone.
Mark D if the question cannot be answered unless more information is provided.

Question 181.

134.    What is the area of the equilateral triangle ABC?

I.  It's perimeter is 30 cm.
II. Each of its angle measures 60.

A.
B.  
C.
D.

Question 182.

What are the values of the numbers ‘x’ and ‘y’?

I.  Their LCM is 72.
II. Their GCD is 1.

A.
B.  
C.
D.
Question 183.

What is the product of two numbers ‘x’ and ‘y’?

I.  Their sum is 6.
II. The sum of their squares is 20

A.
B.  
C.
D.

Question 184.

 What is the cost price of the toy?
I.  If the shopkeeper gives a discount of 10% over the selling price, his profit reduces by Rs.20.
II. If he marks the price at 15% above the cost price, his profit would be the same as in the above statement.

A.
B.  
C.
D.

Question 185.

 5 friends A,B,C,D, and E ran a 100 metre race.  Who won?
I.  D finished after C and E but before A and B
II. There were two people between E and A

A.
B.  
C.
D.